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>> New WGU Financial-Management Practice Questions <<
Trustable WGU - Financial-Management - New WGU Financial Management VBC1 Practice Questions
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WGU Financial Management VBC1 Sample Questions (Q53-Q58):
NEW QUESTION # 53
How does the capital asset pricing model (CAPM) assist in investment decisions?
- A. It helps in assessing the risk-return trade-off of a stock.
- B. It predicts the exact future price of stocks.
- C. It focuses solely on dividend-paying stocks.
- D. It guarantees a certain return on investments.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The CAPM assists in investment decisions by helping investors and financial managers evaluate the relationship between risk and expected return. The model states that the expected return on a security equals the risk-free rate plus a risk premium based on the security's beta and the market risk premium. In this way, CAPM provides a structured method for deciding whether the expected return of a stock is adequate given its level of systematic risk. Choice C is correct because this risk-return trade-off is the core purpose of the model.
CAPM does not predict exact future prices, so choice B is incorrect. It also does not apply only to dividend- paying stocks, making choice A incorrect. Choice D is incorrect because no financial model can guarantee returns in an uncertain market. In financial management, CAPM is widely used to estimate the cost of common equity, evaluate investment performance, and compare required return across securities with different risk levels. Therefore, C is the best answer because CAPM is designed to support investment decisions by linking expected return to systematic market risk.
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NEW QUESTION # 54
What is a consequence of a firm having a longer cash cycle?
- A. Decreased need to hold cash
- B. Increased need to hold cash for operations
- C. Immediate increase in net income
- D. Instantaneous improvement in liquidity
Answer: B
Explanation:
A longer cash cycle means that more time passes between when a firm pays cash for inventory or production inputs and when it receives cash from customers. As this cycle lengthens, more funds are tied up in operations for a longer period. This increases the firm's need to hold cash or obtain short-term financing to support day- to-day activities. For example, if inventory sits longer before being sold or if customers take longer to pay, the firm must continue covering payroll, suppliers, and other operating expenses while waiting to recover cash.
Financial management views the cash conversion cycle as a critical working capital measure because it directly affects liquidity needs, financing cost, and operational risk. Choice C is correct because a longer cycle usually requires greater operating cash support. Choice A is incorrect because longer cycles typically reduce liquidity pressure only if financing is abundant, which is not the normal interpretation. Choice B is incorrect because a longer cash cycle does not automatically raise profits. Choice D is the opposite of the correct relationship. Therefore, C is the best answer because longer operating cycles increase the amount of cash a firm must keep available for operations.
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NEW QUESTION # 55
What does a beta higher than 1.0 for a stock indicate about its systematic risk?
- A. The stock is less risky than the market.
- B. The stock is more volatile than the market.
- C. The stock is less volatile than the market.
- D. The stock is more predictable than the market.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Beta measures a stock's sensitivity to movements in the overall market and represents its level of systematic (non-diversifiable) risk. A beta greater than 1.0 indicates that the stock tends to move more than the market in response to market-wide changes. For example, if the market increases by 1%, a stock with a beta of 1.2 is expected, on average, to increase by approximately 1.2%. Conversely, it would also decline more sharply during market downturns. From a capital market theory perspective, higher beta implies higher risk and therefore a higher required rate of return to compensate investors.
Financial managers use beta in the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) to estimate the cost of equity.
Option B correctly describes the implication of a beta greater than one.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A financial analyst is trying to understand the return that shareholders of a stock receive through dividend payments. The analyst is given the following information:
Company Information-Previous Year
* Revenue: $500,000
* Net Income: $50,000
* Change in Retained Earnings: $30,000
* Change in Total Assets: $40,000
What is the amount of dividends paid during the previous year to shareholders?
- A. $30,000
- B. $50,000
- C. $20,000
- D. $40,000
Answer: C
Explanation:
Dividends paid to shareholders can be determined by analyzing the relationship between net income and retained earnings. Net income represents the total earnings generated during the period, while retained earnings show the portion of net income that is reinvested in the company rather than distributed to shareholders. The basic relationship is:
Net Income = Dividends Paid + Increase in Retained Earnings.
In this case, net income is $50,000 and retained earnings increased by $30,000. Therefore, dividends paid must be the remaining portion of earnings:
$50,000 # $30,000 = $20,000.
The change in total assets is not directly relevant for calculating dividends, as asset growth can be financed through retained earnings, debt, or equity issuance. From a financial management perspective, this calculation helps analysts assess dividend policy, payout ratios, and the firm's balance between returning cash to shareholders and reinvesting in growth. Option A correctly identifies the dividends paid based on standard accounting relationships used in financial statement analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Why should a firm not carry too much cash?
- A. To prevent the need to pay higher taxes on cash holdings
- B. To keep the cash ratio at a low level for financial reporting purposes
- C. To avoid incurring large opportunity costs
- D. To guard against the higher interest payments associated with large cash balances
Answer: C
Explanation:
A firm should avoid holding too much cash because excess cash creates opportunity costs. Cash is highly liquid and useful for transactions, precautionary needs, and flexibility, but it normally earns a lower return than productive investments such as equipment, expansion projects, debt reduction, or marketable securities with higher yields. When a company keeps more cash than needed for operations and risk management, it sacrifices the potential return that those funds could have earned elsewhere. Financial management emphasizes balancing liquidity against profitability. Too little cash can create distress and limit the ability to pay obligations on time, while too much cash can weaken overall performance by leaving resources idle.
Choice C is correct because opportunity cost is the most direct financial drawback of excessive cash balances.
Choice A is incorrect because firms do not pay interest simply for holding cash. Choice B is also incorrect because cash itself does not automatically create higher taxes in the way described. Choice D is not a valid financial objective. Therefore, C is the correct answer because unused cash can reduce shareholder value when it is not deployed in higher-return uses.
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NEW QUESTION # 58
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